For Check Your Answer
Answer Key
Answer Key
1.
Which was the South Indian Destiny that
established its kingdom with its capital at Kanchipuram in the 4th
century and reigned the northern part of Tamil region for about hundred years?
(A)
Chera Destiny
(B)
Pallava Destiny
(C)
Pandya
Destiny
(D)
Chola Destiny
Answer Key
2.
Raziya Sulthana (Razia Sulthan) was the only
women monarch who ruled Delhi. Her rule for four years and following a revolt
by the city’s nobles killed. When did she ascend the throne of Delhi?
(A)
A.D. 1326
(B)
A.D. 1236
(C)
A.D. 1623
(D)
A.D. 1363
Answer Key
3. The
dispute over the Himalayan border in Aksai Chin between the People’s Republic
of China and India triggered the Sino-Indian Border war. This war began in :
(A)
September 1962
(B)
November 1964
(C)
July 1966
(D)
June 1968
Answer Key
4. Among
the following former Portugues colonies in India which one is an Island?
(A)
Goa
(B)
Diu
(C)
Daman
(D)
Dadra
Answer Key
5. ‘Vellore
Mutiny’ was the first instance of a mutiny by the Indian Sepoys against the
British East India Company. It predates even the Sepoy Mutiny of 1987 by nearly
half a century. When did it take place?
(A)
May 10, 1806
(B)
June 8 1808
(C)
September 6, 1807
(D)
December 24, 1805
Answer Key
6. Vijayanagara
Empire once extended over most of the peninsular India. It is named after its
capital city Vijayanagara. As a result of defeat at the hands of an alliance of
the sultanates the capital was brutally razed and looted. Where are the
impressive ruins of this historic city found today?
(A)
Hampi in Karnataka
(B)
Tirupati in Andra Pradesh
(C)
Tanjavor in Tamil Nadu
(D)
Vijayavada in Andra Pradesh
Answer Key
7. Velakali
is the spectacular ritual and marital folk art of Kerala. Where did this
artform take shape in Kerala?
(A)
Vadakara
(B)
Edappally
(C)
Kodungallur
(D)
Ambalappuzha
Answer Key
8. The
first Keralite who became a member of the Central Cabinet and served twice as
Finance Minister.
(A)
A.K. Antony
(B)
K. Karunakaran
(C)
S. Krishnakumar
(D)
Dr. John Mathai
Answer Key
9. Vembanad
lake is the largest lake in Kerala. Which among the following district does not
border this lake?
(A)
Alapuzha
(B)
Kollam
(C)
Kottayam
(D)
Ernakulam
Answer Key
10. Which
is the district last formed?
(A)
Malappuram
(B)
Pathanamthitta
(C)
Kasargod
(D)
Waynad
Answer Key
11. Which
region in Kerala is fomous for its natural sandalwood forests?
(A)
Nenmara
(B)
Peermed
(C)
Marayoor
(D)
Meenachil
Answer Key
12. Among
the following district of Kerala which one shares its border both with
Karnataka and Tamilnadu
(A)
Waynad
(B)
Palakkad
(C)
Kannur
(D)
Malappuram
Answer Key
13. The
Central Tuber Research Institute in Kerala is located at Sreekaryam,
Thiruvananthapuram. Where is the head quarters of Central Crop Research
institute located in Kerala?
(A)
Palode
(B)
Nileswaram
(C)
Kayamkulam
(D)
Kasargode
Answer Key
14. During
the British rule which river in Kerala is nicknamed as English channel?
(A)
Chalakkudi river
(B)
Ponnani river
(C)
Mahe river
(D)
Karamana river
Answer Key
15. Marthanda
Varma renovated the Sri. Padnabha swamy temble of Thiruvananthapuram, and
dedicated his new kingdom to his deity and ruled as the servant of the deity.
When did this event take place?
(A)
October 3rd 1799
(B)
June 5th 1756
(C)
March 7th 1794
(D)
January 3rd 1750
Answer Key
16. What
is the density of population of Kerala according to 2001 Census?
(A)
917 persons/square km.
(B)
819 persons/square km.
(C)
864 persons/square km.
(D)
989 persons/square km.
Answer Key
17. The
term ‘light year’ is the unit employed in measuring:
(A)
Intensity of light
(B)
Distance
(C)
Speed of light
(D)
Time
Answer Key
18. Vinegar
is acidic in the nature because of the presence of :
(A)
Citric acid
(B)
Acetic acid
(C)
Hydrochloric acid
(D)
Tartaric acid
Answer Key
19. We
study viruses because they many infectious disease. Which one of the following diseases
is not a viral disease?
(A)
Influenza
(B)
Measles
(C)
Cholera
(D)
Small pox
Answer Key
20. Which
one of the following characteristic is absent in a computer, how much
sophisticated may be?
(A)
High speed
(B)
Accuracy
(C)
Perfect memory
(D)
Intelligence
Answer Key
21. Isotopes
of an element contain the same number of:
(A)
Neutrons and protons
(B)
Neutrons and protons but different number of
electrons
(C)
Protons but different number of neutrons
(D)
Neutrons and electrons but different number of
protons
Answer Key
22. At
which location at the surface of the earth would an observer find greatest
force due to the Earth gravity?
(A)
Equator
(B)
North pole
(C)
Tropic of Capricorn (23.50 S)
(D)
Tropic of Cancer (23.50 N)
Answer Key
23. Which
is the correct scientific name applied for a ‘shooting star’?
(A)
Comet
(B)
Meteor
(C)
Asteroid
(D)
Meteorite
Answer Key
24. Which
type of mirror is used as ‘rear-view’ mirror in vehicles?
(A)
Plane
(B)
Convex
(C)
Concave
(D)
Oval
Answer Key
25. Based
on the extensive and detailed scientific evidence, geologist have determined
the age of the Earth. Which one of the following figures is the closest to the
present estimated age of the Earth?
(A)
3.25 billion years (3.25x109 years)
(B)
4.55 billion years (4.55x109 years)
(C)
2.95 billion years (2.95x109 years)
(D)
5.55 billion years (5.55x109 years)
Answer Key
26. “This
mineral extensively found in Kerala is a primary ore of several earth metals
most notably thorium, cerium and lanthanum”. Name mineral which this statement
refers to:
(A)
Ilmenite
(B)
Zircon
(C)
Monazite
(D)
Sillimanate
Answer Key
27. While
the river Kaveri (Cauvery) is nicknamed ‘Dakshina Ganga’ another river of South
India is nicknamed ‘Vriddha Ganga’. Which is that river?
(A)
Tungachadra
(B)
Godavari
(C)
Maganadi
(D)
Krishna
Answer Key
28. In
the following pairs of cities and their associated rivers. Which pair is NOT
correct?
(A)
Jhelum – Sri Nagar
(B)
Jamuna – Agra
(C)
Hubli – Kolkatha
(D)
Mahanadi – vijayavada
Answer Key
29. Cherrapunji
world’s wettest place, is located in:
(A)
Arunachal Pradesh
(B)
Meghalaya
(C)
Assam
(D)
Naga;and
Answer Key
30. Find
the incorrect pair among the following:
(A)
Tanjavur – Brihadeeswara Temple
(B)
Amritsar – Golden Temple
(C)
Puri – Konark Temple
(D)
Agra – Lotus Temple
Answer Key
31. “it
is the ony hill station in Rajathan. It is located at an elevation of 1220
meters. It is also the home to a number of famous Jain temples. The world
headquarters of the Brahma Kumari order of lady renunciates is also located
here” which is that place?
(A)
Jaisalmer
(B)
Mount Abu
(C)
Jaipur
(D)
Udaipur
Answer Key
32. The
National Defence Academy of India is the premier national institute of military
sciences, and fundamental training college for all prospective officers of the
Indian Army, the Indian Air force and Indian Navey, Name the state in which it
is located:
(A)
Utter Pradesh
(B)
Maharashtra
(C)
Punjab
(D)
haryana
Answer Key
33. Which is the southernmost point of land in the
territory of India?
(A)
Point Calimere
(B)
Indira point
(C)
Kanyakumari
(D)
Dhanushkodi
Answer Key
34. When
Greenwich Time is 10 am. The corresponding Indian Standard Time will be:
(A)
3.30 pm
(B)
2.30 pm
(C)
5.00 pm
(D)
5.30 pm
Answer Key
35. The
strait that separates the continent Asia from North America is:
(A)
Strait of Gibraltar
(B)
Strait of Malacca
(C)
Palk Strait
(D)
Bering Strait
Answer Key
36. Which
of the following statements regarding eclipses is incorrect?
(A)
A solar eclipse occurs only on new moon days
(B)
A lunar eclipse occurs only on full moon days
(C)
In a solar eclipse the moon moves through the
shadow cast by the Earth
(D)
A lunar eclipse occurs when the moon is between
the sun and the earth and the moon’s shadow moves across the face of the earth
Answer Key
37. The
maximum period for which a proclamation of emergency issued by the President
can remain in force without approval by a resolution of the Parliament is :
(A)
Two months from the date of issue
(B)
Six months from the date of issue
(C)
Four months from the date of issue
(D)
One year from the date of issue
Answer Key
38. In
2000 three new states were created in Indian Union. Which noe of the following
is not among there three?
(A)
Meghalaya
(B)
Uttaranchal
(C)
Jharkhand
(D)
Chhattisgarh
Answer Key
39. Name
the Indian State having maximum number of members in Rajya Sabha:
(A)
Bihar
(B)
Utter Pradesh
(C)
Maharashtra
(D)
Tamil Nadu
Answer Key
40. Including
the speaker and two nominated members, what is the present total strength of
the Lok Sabha of India?
(A)
545 members
(B)
525 members
(C)
530 members
(D)
535 members
Answer Key
41. The
high court judge can hold office till he attain the age of:
(A)
58
(B)
60
(C)
62
(D)
65
Answer Key
42. States
Reorganization Act resulted in erasing the distinction between parts A, B and C
states, and caused the reorganization of the state boundaries along linguistic
lines. This was in the year?
(A)
1948
(B)
1956
(C)
1953
(D)
1961
Answer Key
43. Out
of the total 250 members of the Rajya Sabha, how many are nominated by the
President of India?
(A)
12
(B)
10
(C)
16
(D)
22
Answer Key
44. ‘Father
od Nation’ is a term used by many countries to describe a political or symbolic
leader sees as a founding father of the nation. In the following ‘Nation –
Father of Nation’ pairs which one is incorrect?
(A)
South Africa – Nelson Mandela
(B)
Cambodia – Norodom Sihanouk
(C)
Indonesia – Lee Kuan Yew
(D)
Vietnam – Ho Chi Mich
Answer Key
45. The
first general election under the new Constitution were held in India during the
year 1951 – 52, when did the first elected Parliament come into being?
(A)
March 1953
(B)
November 1952
(C)
April 1952
(D)
January 1953
Answer Key
46. The
allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha is contained in the Fourth Schedule to the
constitution. How many seats in Rajya Sabha are allocated for the State of
Kerala?
(A)
9
(B)
12
(C)
14
(D)
20
Answer Key
47. The
Afro – Asian games held in India in 2000 were the first instance of a sporting
event involving the two continents. Which was its venue in India?
(A)
Patiala
(B)
Chennai
(C)
Kolkata
(D)
Hyderabad
Answer Key
48. Name
the person who resigned as Governor of Tamilnadu and was again appointed as the
Governor of Tamilnadu in 2004?
(A)
T.N. Chatuvedi
(B)
Balram Jakhar
(C)
Surjith Singh Barnala
(D)
Rameshwar Takur
Answer Key
49. Who
is the minister of Electricity in Kerala?
(A)
P.K. Gurudasan
(B)
S. Sharma
(C)
A.K. Balan
(D)
G. Sudhakaran
Answer Key
50. Saka
Era was adopted as the National Calendar in India in 1957. What will be the
Saka Year corresponding to January 1 of 2007?
(A)
1912
(B)
1284
(C)
1928
(D)
1574
Answer Key
51. Who
is the present chief minister of Bihar?
(A)
Nithish kumar
(B)
Arjun munda
(C)
Naveen patnaik
(D)
Karpoori Thakur
Answer Key
52. Under
the Irrigation Component of Bharat Nirman the target of creation of additional
irrigation potential of 1 crore hectare in India is planned to be achieved in :
(A)
2010
(B)
2007
(C)
2009
(D)
2012
Answer Key
53. Bollywood
is the informal name given to the popular Mumbai based Hindi Language film
industry in India. What does the name ‘Kollywood’ represent?
(A)
Tamil film industry of Chennai
(B)
Kannada Film industry of Bangalur
(C)
Telungu Film industry of Hyderabad
(D)
Bengali Film industry of Kolkata
Answer Key
54. Name
the country presently having the fifth largest installed wing power capacity in
the world (1870 MW)
(A)
Australia
(B)
USA
(C)
Brazil
(D)
India
Answer Key
55. In
2012 New Delhi will be a venue for an important event. Which is that event?
(A)
Asian Games
(B)
World Games
(C)
Commonwealth Games
(D)
Asian Indoor Games
Answer Key
56. Who
is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(A)
S.NArayanaswamy
(B)
T.S. Krishnamoorthy
(C)
K.Gopalaswamy
(D)
J.M.Lyngdoh
Answer Key
57. Rani
Lakshmi Bhai, the fiery Queen of Jhansi, also known as the Rani of Jhansi, is a
great nationalist heroine of the first war of Indian freedom and symbol of
resistance to the British rule in India. She died in 1858 fighting the British.
What was her original name given by her parents?
(A)
Alakananda
(B)
Sarada
(C)
Manikarnika
(D)
Aparna
Answer Key
58. The
Gyathri Manthra is the most revered Vedic Mantra in Hinduism. Which sage is
considered as the author of Gayathri Manthra?
(A)
Sage Viswamithra
(B)
Sage Agasthya
(C)
Sage Angiras
(D)
sage Kashyapa
Answer Key
59. Name
the year in which the Decimal System of coinage was introduced in India?
(A)
1960
(B)
1959
(C)
1958
(D)
1957
Answer Key
60. In
the great war of Kalinga in 260 BC, the Magadha King Ashoka foresworn violence
and accepted Buddhism. The major portion of the Kalinga kingdom was in the
modern state of:
(A)
Orissa
(B)
Andra Pradesh
(C)
Bihar
(D)
Madhya Pradesh
Answer Key
61. In
which of the following sentence is the verb incorrectly used?
1.
Smitha and Lakshmi are going to lay the carpet.
2.
He lay on the floor.
3.
Why don’t, you lay on the floor.
4.
He had laid on the floor for hours.
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
3
(D)
4
Answer Key
62. Which
one of the following sentence is grammatically correct?
(A)
Mother-in-laws always quarrel with their daughter-in-laws.
(B)
That news is not reliable.
(C)
These deers have been brought from the forest of
South Africa.
(D)
He is only a six-years old child.
Answer Key
63. Which
of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
(A)
Mary is elder than I.
(B)
The person who is standing besides the door is
my sister.
(C)
She told to me to read it.
(D)
Please don’t mention about the incident again.
Answer Key
64. How
many of the following sentences are grammatically correct?
1.
She shook her head with a regrettable smile.
2.
They spend five tortuous days in the enemy camp.
3.
I spend the majority of a reading.
4.
We intend to say here a farther two weeks.
(A)
One
(B)
Two
(C)
Three
(D)
Four
Answer Key
65. Find
the portion where error occurs in the following sentence.
My elder brother / and my sister / helps me in / doing my
home work
(A)
(B) (C) (D)
Answer Key
66. How
many of the following sentences are grammatically correct?
1.
Bacteria causing salmonella is killed by through
cooking
2.
Her article is detrimental both understanding
and to peace.
3.
Studies of anteater, both in the wild and
captivity indicate that it is a nocturnal animal.
4.
He came with you and I.
(A)
One
(B)
Two
(C)
Three
(D)
None
Answer Key
67. How
many of the following sentences are grammatically in correct?
1.
I am either going to buy a new camera or a
video.
2.
Either I accompany you or Harikrishnan.
3.
I don’t know nothing.
4.
There is no problem between you and I.
(A)
One
(B)
All
(C)
Three
(D)
None
Answer Key
68. Find
the portion where error occurs in the following sentence.
Trees
/ drop its / leaves in / autumn.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Answer Key
69. Which
of the following English translations of common Latin phrases is incorrect?/
1.
In toto – in the mean time
2.
Ad infinitum – to infinity
3.
Sub judis – ‘under a judge’, said of a case that
cannot be publicly discussed until it is finished.
4.
Ad hoc – means to this thing. Usually used to
describe a particular type of committee, one which is formed to deal with a
particular issue, and disbanded after the issue is resolved.
(A)
1
(B)
1 and 4
(C)
2 and 4
(D)
1 and 3
Answer Key
70. Which
of the following statements regarding common Latin abbreviation are in correct?
(A)
cf.
(conferre) means ‘to confess one’s fault’
(B)
viz.
(videlicet) means ‘namely’
(C)
e.g. (example gratia) means ‘for example’
(D)
ibid (ibidem) means ‘in the same place’
Answer Key
71. In
the list of synonyms given below, which one is incorrect?
(A)
Intelligible – comprehensible
(B)
Hast – hurry
(C)
Absurd – stupid
(D)
Lavish – innocent
Answer Key
72. Among
the following antonyms listed below which one is incorrect?
(A)
Surplus – deficit
(B)
Genuine – spurious
(C)
Bold – shy
(D)
Savage – civilized
Answer Key
73. Complete
the following proverbs of list A choosing the appropriate word/words from list
B
List A
(1)
---------- never won fair lady.
(2)
---------- is mightier than the sward
(3)
---------- is the sincerest from the flattery.
(4)
---------- speaks louder than words
List B
a.
A faint heart
b.
The pen
c.
Imitation
d.
Action
e.
Laziness
A.
(1)-e,
(2)-b, (3)-c, (4)-a
B.
(1) – a, (2) – e, (3) – c, (4) – a
C.
(1) – a, (2) – b, (3) – c, (4) – d
D.
(1) – e, (2) – d, (3) – c, (4) – a
Answer Key
74. Which
of the following pairs are incorrect?
(A)
Cardiology – Heart
(B)
Ornithology – Birds
(C)
Metrology – Weather
(D)
Seismology – Earthquake
Answer Key
75. How
many of the following four words have correct spelling? Curriculam, miniscule,
millennium, homogenous
(A)
One
(B)
Two
(C)
Three
(D)
None
Answer Key
76. Choose
the correct words from the List B to complete the sentences in List A
List A
A.
The little bird could sit as still as
-----------
B.
The burglar who entered the house was as quite
as ------------
C.
He is as happy as a ------------- today because
it is his birthday.
D.
The athlete ran a swift as ------------ along
the track
List B
1.
Hawk
2.
Lark
3.
mouse
4.
Statue
5.
Lamb
(A)
A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, and D – 1
(B)
A – 4, B – 2, C – 3 and D – 1
(C)
A – 5, B – 3, C – 2 and D – 2
(D)
A – 2, B – 3, C – 5 and D – 1
Answer Key
77. Which
of the following is wrongly matched?
(A)
Hangar – A place for housing aircrafts.
(B)
Mint – A place where coins are made.
(C)
Stable – a place where horses are kept.
(D)
Apiary – a place where monkeys are kept.
Answer Key
78. Meaning
of which of the following idioms is incorrectly stated.
(A)
To build castles in the air – to day dream
(B)
To be black and white – to write it down on
paper
(C)
Like a dog with two tails – a person who
extremely delighted
(D)
A tall story – a long story
Answer Key
79. Match
the following proverbs in List A with their correct meanings in the List B
List
A
1.
Sacrifice future gains to satisfy present needs.
2.
The opinions, advice, etc of a second persons
are valuable.
3.
There is always some reason for a rumour.
4.
People of the same sort gather together.
List
B
A.
There is no smoke without fire.
B.
Still waters run deep.
C.
Birds of the same feather flock together.
D.
Kill the goose that lays the golden eggs.
E.
Two heads are better than one.
A.
1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – B and C – 4
B.
1 – C , 2 – E, 3 – A and 4 – D
C.
1 – E, 2 – B, 3 – A and 4 – D
D.
1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – A and 4 – C
Answer Key
80. Which
one of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
(A)
Take off your shoes before you enter into the
house.
(B)
One should obey his parents.
(C)
He has failed in the examination.
(D)
He has not replied my letter yet.
Answer Key
81. If
the number of girls in the class is five times the number of boys in the same
class, which one of the following numbers cannot be the total number of
students in that class?
(A)
36
(B)
48
(C)
54
(D)
62
Answer Key
82. Adithya
multiplied 123 by a certain number and obtained 56077 as his answer. If both
the sevens (7s) in the answer are wrong, but the other figures are right, which
is the correct answer?
(A)
56045
(B)
56068
(C)
56088
(D)
56034
Answer Key
83. In
the place of mathematical symbols ‘+’ and ‘-‘ the letters (X), (Y) and (Z) are
inserted between the series of numbers given below. Chose the correct
mathematical relationship from the choices given: 143(X) 95(Y) 30(Z) 128 = 336
(A)
(X) and (Z) represents – and (Y) represents +
(B)
(X) and (Z) represents + and (Y) represents -
(C)
(X) and (Y) represents + and (Z) represents -
(D)
(X) and (Y) represents – and (Z) represents +
Answer Key
84. Choose
from (A), (B), (C) or (D) the right word that belongs to the group of words
listed below: ZEPPELIN, VERNIER, …………. TEDDY BEAR, HERTS, SANDWICH, OSCAR
(A)
DIESEL
(B)
CALCULATOR
(C)
BATTERY
(D)
RADAR
Answer Key
85. In
the series of words given hereunder select the missing word to complete the
series: cookbook, ……………………., toolroom, proofroom, foolproof
(A)
Doomsday
(B)
Roomboy
(C)
Broomstick
(D)
Schoolroom
Answer Key
86. Which
is the odd one in the following list?
Gujarat, Goa, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Orissa, Kerala, Haryana
(A)
Haryana
(B)
Kerala
(C)
Goa
(D)
Gujarat
Answer Key
87. Arrange
the following in the order in alphabetical order as they appear in a dictionary
and identify the word that will come fifth in the correct sequence: quadruplet,
quack, quality, quarry, qualification, quasar, quadrant
(A)
Quality
(B)
Quack
(C)
Quasar
(D)
Quadrant
Answer Key
88. Supply
the missing number in the following series: 2, 9, 28, 65, ----- , 217
(A)
115
(B)
186
(C)
126
(D)
201
Answer Key
89. Which
of the following numbers has its letters (when written in words) in
alphabetical order?
(A)
20
(B)
30
(C)
40
(D)
50
Answer Key
90. Provide
the last missing word in the following series of words: ONE, FOUR, THREE,
ELEVEN, FIFTEEN, THIRTEEN, SEVENTEEN, -----------------
(A)
THIRTY ONE
(B)
FORTY SEVEN
(C)
TWENTY FOUR
(D)
FORTY FOUR
Answer Key
91. Name
the pair in the following group of numbers which consist of the same digits but
in different order
Q-6582390451 O-1472356890 P-9615602378
Q-7493401256 R-8915670231 S-3587126790
T-9028532167 U-3529036718 V-5481290673
(A)
Q and S
(B)
S and U
(C)
R and P
(D)
V and O
Answer Key
92. Complete
the following statements with suitable words: Umbrella is to rain as sword as
to …………….
(A)
Enemy
(B)
Fight
(C)
Seize
(D)
Battle
Answer Key
93. Which
among the following statement is wrong?
(A)
32 is the smallest 4th power.
(B)
132 is the smallest number which is the sum of
all the two digit numbers that can be formed with its digits.
(C)
50 is the smallest number that can be written as
the sum of two square numbers.
(D)
25 is the smallest square number that can be
written as the sum of two square numbers.
Answer Key
94. Among
the following four statements identify the one which is incorrect:
(A)
780 = (7+5)(8+5)(0+5)
(B)
4772 = (4+4)(7+4)(5+4)(2+4)
(C)
1500 = (1+5)(5+5)(0+5)(0+5)
(D)
4340 = (4+6)(3+6)(2+6)(0+6)
Answer Key
95. The
largest four digit number which is a perfect square of a whole number is:
(A)
9801
(B)
9604
(C)
9216
(D)
9025
Answer Key
96. A,
B, C and D start from the same point to walk around in a circular path, in the same direction, around a garden
whose circumference is one kilometer. A walks 5 km an hour, B walks 4 km an
hour, C walks 3 km an hour and D walks 2 km an hour. How long will it be before
all four again meet at the starting point?
(A)
4 hours
(B)
3 hours
(C)
2 hours
(D)
1 hours
Answer Key
97. How
many numbers are there that are
completely divisible by 7 between 100 and 205?
(A)
15
(B)
13
(C)
14
(D)
12
Answer Key
98. Complete
the following series of words inserting proper word selecting from (A), (B),
(C) or (D): THOUSAND, BILLION, OCTILLION, HUNDRED, ONE , ---------, EIGHT
(A)
TWO
(B)
FOUR
(C)
THREE
(D)
SIX
Answer Key
99. Find
the next two letters in the following series: A, C, F, J,……., ……..
(A)
O and U
(B)
M and P
(C)
L and S
(D)
N and S
Answer Key
100.
Seven of the following nine names are alike in
certain way and so form a group. Which are the ones that do not belong to that
group?
1. Albania 2. Afganithan 3. Algeria
4. angola 5. Azerbijan 6. Australia
7. Austria 8. Argentina 9. Antigua
(A)
3 and 7
(B)
4 and 6
(C)
2 and 5
(D)
1 and 6
Answer Key
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