Saturday, 27 October 2012


For Check Your Answer
Answer Key
1.       Which was the South Indian Destiny that established its kingdom with its capital at Kanchipuram in the 4th century and reigned the northern part of Tamil region for about hundred years?

(A)   Chera Destiny

(B)   Pallava Destiny

(C)   Pandya  Destiny

(D)   Chola Destiny
Answer Key
2.       Raziya Sulthana (Razia Sulthan) was the only women monarch who ruled Delhi. Her rule for four years and following a revolt by the city’s nobles killed. When did she ascend the throne of Delhi?

(A)   A.D. 1326

(B)   A.D. 1236

(C)   A.D. 1623

(D)   A.D. 1363
Answer Key
3.       The dispute over the Himalayan border in Aksai Chin between the People’s Republic of China and India triggered the Sino-Indian Border war. This war began in :

(A)   September 1962

(B)   November 1964

(C)   July 1966

(D)   June 1968
Answer Key
4.       Among the following former Portugues colonies in India which one is an Island?

(A)   Goa

(B)   Diu

(C)   Daman

(D)   Dadra
Answer Key
5.       ‘Vellore Mutiny’ was the first instance of a mutiny by the Indian Sepoys against the British East India Company. It predates even the Sepoy Mutiny of 1987 by nearly half a century. When did it take place?

(A)   May 10, 1806

(B)   June 8 1808

(C)   September 6, 1807

(D)   December 24, 1805
Answer Key
6.       Vijayanagara Empire once extended over most of the peninsular India. It is named after its capital city Vijayanagara. As a result of defeat at the hands of an alliance of the sultanates the capital was brutally razed and looted. Where are the impressive ruins of this historic city found today?

(A)   Hampi in Karnataka

(B)   Tirupati in Andra Pradesh

(C)   Tanjavor in Tamil Nadu

(D)   Vijayavada in Andra Pradesh
Answer Key
7.       Velakali is the spectacular ritual and marital folk art of Kerala. Where did this artform take shape in Kerala?

(A)   Vadakara

(B)   Edappally

(C)   Kodungallur

(D)   Ambalappuzha
Answer Key
8.       The first Keralite who became a member of the Central Cabinet and served twice as Finance Minister.

(A)   A.K. Antony

(B)   K. Karunakaran

(C)   S. Krishnakumar

(D)   Dr. John Mathai
Answer Key
9.       Vembanad lake is the largest lake in Kerala. Which among the following district does not border this lake?

(A)   Alapuzha

(B)   Kollam

(C)   Kottayam

(D)   Ernakulam
Answer Key
10.   Which is the district last formed?

(A)   Malappuram

(B)   Pathanamthitta

(C)   Kasargod

(D)   Waynad
Answer Key
11.   Which region in Kerala is fomous for its natural sandalwood forests?

(A)   Nenmara

(B)   Peermed

(C)   Marayoor

(D)   Meenachil
Answer Key
12.   Among the following district of Kerala which one shares its border both with Karnataka and Tamilnadu

(A)   Waynad

(B)   Palakkad

(C)   Kannur

(D)   Malappuram
Answer Key
13.   The Central Tuber Research Institute in Kerala is located at Sreekaryam, Thiruvananthapuram. Where is the head quarters of Central Crop Research institute located in Kerala?

(A)   Palode

(B)   Nileswaram

(C)   Kayamkulam

(D)   Kasargode
Answer Key
14.   During the British rule which river in Kerala is nicknamed as English channel?

(A)   Chalakkudi river

(B)   Ponnani river

(C)   Mahe river

(D)   Karamana river
Answer Key
15.   Marthanda Varma renovated the Sri. Padnabha swamy temble of Thiruvananthapuram, and dedicated his new kingdom to his deity and ruled as the servant of the deity. When did this event take place?

(A)   October 3rd 1799

(B)   June 5th 1756

(C)   March 7th 1794

(D)   January 3rd 1750
Answer Key
16.   What is the density of population of Kerala according to 2001 Census?

(A)   917 persons/square km.

(B)   819 persons/square km.

(C)   864 persons/square km.

(D)   989 persons/square km.
Answer Key
17.   The term ‘light year’ is the unit employed in measuring:

(A)   Intensity of light

(B)   Distance

(C)   Speed of light

(D)   Time
Answer Key
18.   Vinegar is acidic in the nature because of the presence of :

(A)   Citric acid

(B)   Acetic acid

(C)   Hydrochloric acid

(D)   Tartaric acid
Answer Key
19.   We study viruses because they many infectious disease. Which one of the following diseases is not a viral disease?

(A)   Influenza

(B)   Measles

(C)   Cholera

(D)   Small pox
Answer Key
20.   Which one of the following characteristic is absent in a computer, how much sophisticated may be?

(A)   High speed

(B)   Accuracy

(C)   Perfect memory

(D)   Intelligence
Answer Key
21.   Isotopes of an element contain the same number of:

(A)   Neutrons and protons

(B)   Neutrons and protons but different number of electrons

(C)   Protons but different number of neutrons

(D)   Neutrons and electrons but different number of protons
Answer Key
22.   At which location at the surface of the earth would an observer find greatest force due to the Earth gravity?

(A)   Equator

(B)   North pole

(C)   Tropic of Capricorn (23.50  S)

(D)   Tropic of Cancer (23.50  N)
Answer Key
23.   Which is the correct scientific name applied for a ‘shooting star’?

(A)   Comet

(B)   Meteor

(C)   Asteroid

(D)   Meteorite
Answer Key
24.   Which type of mirror is used as ‘rear-view’ mirror in vehicles?

(A)   Plane

(B)   Convex

(C)   Concave

(D)   Oval
Answer Key
25.   Based on the extensive and detailed scientific evidence, geologist have determined the age of the Earth. Which one of the following figures is the closest to the present estimated age of the Earth?

(A)   3.25 billion years (3.25x109 years)

(B)   4.55 billion years (4.55x109 years)

(C)   2.95 billion years (2.95x109 years)

(D)   5.55 billion years (5.55x109 years)
Answer Key
26.   “This mineral extensively found in Kerala is a primary ore of several earth metals most notably thorium, cerium and lanthanum”. Name mineral which this statement refers to:

(A)   Ilmenite

(B)   Zircon

(C)   Monazite

(D)   Sillimanate
Answer Key
27.   While the river Kaveri (Cauvery) is nicknamed ‘Dakshina Ganga’ another river of South India is nicknamed ‘Vriddha Ganga’. Which is that river?

(A)   Tungachadra

(B)   Godavari

(C)   Maganadi

(D)   Krishna
Answer Key
28.   In the following pairs of cities and their associated rivers. Which pair is NOT correct?

(A)   Jhelum – Sri Nagar

(B)   Jamuna – Agra

(C)   Hubli – Kolkatha

(D)   Mahanadi – vijayavada
Answer Key
29.   Cherrapunji world’s wettest place, is located in:

(A)   Arunachal Pradesh

(B)   Meghalaya

(C)   Assam

(D)   Naga;and
Answer Key
30.   Find the incorrect pair among the following:

(A)   Tanjavur – Brihadeeswara Temple

(B)   Amritsar – Golden Temple

(C)   Puri – Konark Temple

(D)   Agra – Lotus Temple
Answer Key
31.   “it is the ony hill station in Rajathan. It is located at an elevation of 1220 meters. It is also the home to a number of famous Jain temples. The world headquarters of the Brahma Kumari order of lady renunciates is also located here” which is that place?

(A)   Jaisalmer

(B)   Mount Abu

(C)   Jaipur

(D)   Udaipur
Answer Key
32.   The National Defence Academy of India is the premier national institute of military sciences, and fundamental training college for all prospective officers of the Indian Army, the Indian Air force and Indian Navey, Name the state in which it is located:

(A)   Utter Pradesh

(B)   Maharashtra

(C)   Punjab

(D)   haryana
Answer Key
33.    Which is the southernmost point of land in the territory of India?

(A)   Point Calimere

(B)   Indira point

(C)   Kanyakumari

(D)   Dhanushkodi
Answer Key
34.   When Greenwich Time is 10 am. The corresponding Indian Standard Time will be:

(A)   3.30 pm

(B)   2.30 pm

(C)   5.00 pm

(D)   5.30 pm
Answer Key
35.   The strait that separates the continent Asia from North America is:

(A)   Strait of Gibraltar

(B)   Strait of Malacca

(C)   Palk Strait

(D)   Bering Strait
Answer Key
36.   Which of the following statements regarding eclipses is incorrect?

(A)   A solar eclipse occurs only on new moon days

(B)   A lunar eclipse occurs only on full moon days

(C)   In a solar eclipse the moon moves through the shadow cast by the Earth

(D)   A lunar eclipse occurs when the moon is between the sun and the earth and the moon’s shadow moves across the face of the earth
Answer Key
37.   The maximum period for which a proclamation of emergency issued by the President can remain in force without approval by a resolution of the Parliament is :

(A)   Two months from the date of issue

(B)   Six months from the date of issue

(C)   Four months from the date of issue

(D)   One year from the date of issue
Answer Key
38.   In 2000 three new states were created in Indian Union. Which noe of the following is not among there three?

(A)   Meghalaya

(B)   Uttaranchal

(C)   Jharkhand

(D)   Chhattisgarh
Answer Key
39.   Name the Indian State having maximum number of members in Rajya Sabha:

(A)   Bihar

(B)   Utter Pradesh

(C)   Maharashtra

(D)   Tamil Nadu
Answer Key
40.   Including the speaker and two nominated members, what is the present total strength of the Lok Sabha of India?

(A)   545 members

(B)   525 members

(C)   530 members

(D)   535 members
Answer Key
41.   The high court judge can hold office till he attain the age of:

(A)   58

(B)   60

(C)   62

(D)   65
Answer Key
42.   States Reorganization Act resulted in erasing the distinction between parts A, B and C states, and caused the reorganization of the state boundaries along linguistic lines. This was in the year?

(A)   1948

(B)   1956

(C)   1953

(D)   1961
Answer Key
43.   Out of the total 250 members of the Rajya Sabha, how many are nominated by the President of India?

(A)   12

(B)   10

(C)   16

(D)   22
Answer Key
44.   ‘Father od Nation’ is a term used by many countries to describe a political or symbolic leader sees as a founding father of the nation. In the following ‘Nation – Father of Nation’ pairs which one is incorrect?

(A)   South Africa – Nelson Mandela

(B)   Cambodia – Norodom Sihanouk

(C)   Indonesia – Lee Kuan Yew

(D)   Vietnam – Ho Chi Mich
Answer Key
45.   The first general election under the new Constitution were held in India during the year 1951 – 52, when did the first elected Parliament come into being?

(A)   March 1953

(B)   November 1952

(C)   April 1952

(D)   January 1953
Answer Key
46.   The allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha is contained in the Fourth Schedule to the constitution. How many seats in Rajya Sabha are allocated for the State of Kerala?

(A)   9

(B)   12

(C)   14

(D)   20
Answer Key
47.   The Afro – Asian games held in India in 2000 were the first instance of a sporting event involving the two continents. Which was its venue in India?

(A)   Patiala

(B)   Chennai

(C)   Kolkata

(D)   Hyderabad
Answer Key
48.   Name the person who resigned as Governor of Tamilnadu and was again appointed as the Governor of Tamilnadu in 2004?

(A)   T.N. Chatuvedi

(B)   Balram Jakhar

(C)   Surjith Singh Barnala

(D)   Rameshwar Takur
Answer Key
49.   Who is the minister of Electricity in Kerala?

(A)   P.K. Gurudasan

(B)   S. Sharma

(C)   A.K. Balan

(D)   G. Sudhakaran
Answer Key
50.   Saka Era was adopted as the National Calendar in India in 1957. What will be the Saka Year corresponding to January 1 of 2007?

(A)   1912

(B)   1284

(C)   1928

(D)   1574
Answer Key
51.   Who is the present chief minister of Bihar?

(A)   Nithish kumar

(B)   Arjun munda

(C)   Naveen patnaik

(D)   Karpoori Thakur
Answer Key
52.   Under the Irrigation Component of Bharat Nirman the target of creation of additional irrigation potential of 1 crore hectare in India is planned to be achieved in :

(A)   2010

(B)   2007

(C)   2009

(D)   2012
Answer Key
53.   Bollywood is the informal name given to the popular Mumbai based Hindi Language film industry in India. What does the name ‘Kollywood’ represent?

(A)   Tamil film industry of Chennai

(B)   Kannada Film industry of Bangalur

(C)   Telungu Film industry of Hyderabad

(D)   Bengali Film industry of Kolkata
Answer Key
54.   Name the country presently having the fifth largest installed wing power capacity in the world (1870 MW)

(A)   Australia

(B)   USA

(C)   Brazil

(D)   India
Answer Key
55.   In 2012 New Delhi will be a venue for an important event. Which is that event?

(A)   Asian Games

(B)   World Games

(C)   Commonwealth Games

(D)   Asian Indoor Games
Answer Key
56.   Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(A)   S.NArayanaswamy

(B)   T.S. Krishnamoorthy

(C)   K.Gopalaswamy

(D)   J.M.Lyngdoh
Answer Key
57.   Rani Lakshmi Bhai, the fiery Queen of Jhansi, also known as the Rani of Jhansi, is a great nationalist heroine of the first war of Indian freedom and symbol of resistance to the British rule in India. She died in 1858 fighting the British. What was her original name given by her parents?

(A)   Alakananda

(B)   Sarada

(C)   Manikarnika

(D)   Aparna
Answer Key
58.   The Gyathri Manthra is the most revered Vedic Mantra in Hinduism. Which sage is considered as the author of Gayathri Manthra?

(A)   Sage Viswamithra

(B)   Sage Agasthya

(C)   Sage Angiras

(D)   sage Kashyapa
Answer Key
59.   Name the year in which the Decimal System of coinage was introduced in India?

(A)   1960

(B)   1959

(C)   1958

(D)   1957
Answer Key
60.   In the great war of Kalinga in 260 BC, the Magadha King Ashoka foresworn violence and accepted Buddhism. The major portion of the Kalinga kingdom was in the modern state of:

(A)   Orissa

(B)   Andra Pradesh

(C)   Bihar

(D)   Madhya Pradesh
Answer Key
61.   In which of the following sentence is the verb incorrectly used?

1.       Smitha and Lakshmi are going to lay the carpet.

2.       He lay on the floor.

3.       Why don’t, you lay on the floor.

4.       He had laid on the floor for hours.

(A)   1

(B)   2

(C)   3

(D)   4
Answer Key
62.   Which one of the following sentence is grammatically correct?

(A)   Mother-in-laws always quarrel with their daughter-in-laws.

(B)   That news is not reliable.

(C)   These deers have been brought from the forest of South Africa.

(D)   He is only a six-years old child.
Answer Key
63.   Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

(A)   Mary is elder than I.

(B)   The person who is standing besides the door is my sister.

(C)   She told to me to read it.

(D)   Please don’t mention about the incident again.
Answer Key
64.   How many of the following sentences are grammatically correct?

1.       She shook her head with a regrettable smile.

2.       They spend five tortuous days in the enemy camp.

3.       I spend the majority of a reading.

4.       We intend to say here a farther two weeks.

(A)   One

(B)   Two

(C)   Three

(D)   Four
Answer Key
65.   Find the portion where error occurs in the following sentence.

My elder brother / and my sister / helps me in / doing my home work

(A)                     (B)                         (C)                        (D)
Answer Key
66.   How many of the following sentences are grammatically correct?

1.       Bacteria causing salmonella is killed by through cooking

2.       Her article is detrimental both understanding and to peace.

3.       Studies of anteater, both in the wild and captivity indicate that it is a nocturnal animal.

4.       He came with you and I.

(A)   One

(B)   Two

(C)   Three

(D)   None
Answer Key
67.   How many of the following sentences are grammatically in correct?

1.       I am either going to buy a new camera or a video.

2.       Either I accompany you or Harikrishnan.

3.       I don’t know nothing.

4.       There is no problem between you and I.

(A)   One

(B)   All

(C)   Three

(D)   None
Answer Key
68.   Find the portion where error occurs in the following sentence.

        Trees  / drop its / leaves in / autumn.

           (A)        (B)               (C)            (D)  
Answer Key
69.   Which of the following English translations of common Latin phrases is incorrect?/

1.       In toto – in the mean time

2.       Ad infinitum – to infinity

3.       Sub judis – ‘under a judge’, said of a case that cannot be publicly discussed until it is finished.

4.       Ad hoc – means to this thing. Usually used to describe a particular type of committee, one which is formed to deal with a particular issue, and disbanded after the issue is resolved.

(A)   1

(B)   1 and 4

(C)   2 and 4

(D)   1 and 3
Answer Key
70.   Which of the following statements regarding common Latin abbreviation are in correct?

(A)    cf. (conferre) means ‘to confess one’s fault’

(B)    viz. (videlicet) means ‘namely’

(C)   e.g. (example gratia) means ‘for example’

(D)   ibid (ibidem) means ‘in the same place’
Answer Key
71.   In the list of synonyms given below, which one is incorrect?

(A)   Intelligible – comprehensible

(B)   Hast – hurry

(C)   Absurd – stupid

(D)   Lavish – innocent
Answer Key
72.   Among the following antonyms listed below which one is incorrect?

(A)   Surplus – deficit

(B)   Genuine – spurious

(C)   Bold – shy

(D)   Savage – civilized
Answer Key
73.   Complete the following proverbs of list A choosing the appropriate word/words from list B

List A

(1)    ---------- never won fair lady.

(2)    ---------- is mightier than the sward

(3)    ---------- is the sincerest from the flattery.

(4)    ---------- speaks louder than words

List B

a.       A faint heart

b.      The pen

c.       Imitation

d.      Action

e.      Laziness

A.      (1)-e,  (2)-b, (3)-c, (4)-a

B.      (1) – a, (2) – e, (3) – c, (4) – a

C.      (1) – a, (2) – b, (3) – c, (4) – d

D.      (1) – e, (2) – d, (3) – c, (4) – a
Answer Key
74.   Which of the following pairs are incorrect?

(A)   Cardiology – Heart

(B)   Ornithology – Birds

(C)   Metrology – Weather

(D)   Seismology – Earthquake
Answer Key
75.   How many of the following four words have correct spelling? Curriculam, miniscule, millennium, homogenous

(A)   One

(B)   Two

(C)   Three

(D)   None
Answer Key
76.   Choose the correct words from the List B to complete the sentences in List A

List A

A.      The little bird could sit as still as -----------

B.      The burglar who entered the house was as quite as ------------

C.      He is as happy as a ------------- today because it is his birthday.

D.      The athlete ran a swift as ------------ along the track

                List B

1.       Hawk

2.       Lark

3.       mouse

4.       Statue

5.       Lamb

(A)   A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, and D – 1

(B)   A – 4, B – 2, C – 3 and D – 1

(C)   A – 5, B – 3, C – 2 and D – 2

(D)   A – 2, B – 3, C – 5 and  D – 1
Answer Key
77.   Which of the following is wrongly matched?

(A)   Hangar – A place for housing aircrafts.

(B)   Mint – A place where coins are made.

(C)   Stable – a place where horses are kept.

(D)   Apiary – a place where monkeys are kept.
Answer Key
78.   Meaning of which of the following idioms is incorrectly stated.

(A)   To build castles in the air – to day dream

(B)   To be black and white – to write it down on paper

(C)   Like a dog with two tails – a person who extremely delighted

(D)   A tall story – a long story
Answer Key
79.   Match the following proverbs in List A with their correct meanings in the List B

                        List A

1.       Sacrifice future gains to satisfy present needs.

2.       The opinions, advice, etc of a second persons are valuable.

3.       There is always some reason for a rumour.

4.       People of the same sort gather together.

                        List B

A.      There is no smoke without fire.

B.      Still waters run deep.

C.      Birds of the same feather flock together.

D.      Kill the goose that lays the golden eggs.

E.       Two heads are better than one.

A.      1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – B and C – 4

B.      1 – C , 2 – E, 3 – A and 4 – D

C.      1 – E, 2 – B, 3 – A and 4 – D

D.      1 – D, 2 – E, 3 – A and 4 – C
Answer Key
80.   Which one of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

(A)   Take off your shoes before you enter into the house.

(B)   One should obey his parents.

(C)   He has failed in the examination.

(D)   He has not replied my letter yet.
Answer Key
81.   If the number of girls in the class is five times the number of boys in the same class, which one of the following numbers cannot be the total number of students in that class?

(A)   36

(B)   48

(C)   54

(D)   62
Answer Key
82.   Adithya multiplied 123 by a certain number and obtained 56077 as his answer. If both the sevens (7s) in the answer are wrong, but the other figures are right, which is the correct answer?

(A)   56045

(B)   56068

(C)   56088

(D)   56034
Answer Key
83.   In the place of mathematical symbols ‘+’ and ‘-‘ the letters (X), (Y) and (Z) are inserted between the series of numbers given below. Chose the correct mathematical relationship from the choices given: 143(X) 95(Y) 30(Z) 128 = 336

(A)   (X) and (Z) represents – and (Y) represents +

(B)   (X) and (Z) represents + and (Y) represents -

(C)   (X) and (Y) represents + and (Z) represents -

(D)   (X) and (Y) represents – and (Z) represents +
Answer Key
84.   Choose from (A), (B), (C) or (D) the right word that belongs to the group of words listed below: ZEPPELIN, VERNIER, …………. TEDDY BEAR, HERTS, SANDWICH, OSCAR




Answer Key
85.   In the series of words given hereunder select the missing word to complete the series: cookbook, ……………………., toolroom, proofroom, foolproof

(A)   Doomsday

(B)   Roomboy

(C)   Broomstick

(D)   Schoolroom
Answer Key
86.   Which is the odd one in the following list?  Gujarat, Goa, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Orissa, Kerala, Haryana

(A)   Haryana

(B)   Kerala

(C)   Goa

(D)   Gujarat
Answer Key
87.   Arrange the following in the order in alphabetical order as they appear in a dictionary and identify the word that will come fifth in the correct sequence: quadruplet, quack, quality, quarry, qualification, quasar, quadrant

(A)   Quality

(B)   Quack

(C)   Quasar

(D)   Quadrant
Answer Key
88.   Supply the missing number in the following series: 2, 9, 28, 65, ----- , 217

(A)   115

(B)   186

(C)   126

(D)   201
Answer Key
89.   Which of the following numbers has its letters (when written in words) in alphabetical order?

(A)   20

(B)   30

(C)   40

(D)   50
Answer Key
90.   Provide the last missing word in the following series of words: ONE, FOUR, THREE, ELEVEN, FIFTEEN, THIRTEEN, SEVENTEEN, -----------------




Answer Key
91.   Name the pair in the following group of numbers which consist of the same digits but in different order

Q-6582390451                    O-1472356890                    P-9615602378

Q-7493401256                    R-8915670231                    S-3587126790

T-9028532167                     U-3529036718                    V-5481290673

(A)   Q and S

(B)   S and U

(C)   R and P

(D)   V and O
Answer Key
92.   Complete the following statements with suitable words: Umbrella is to rain as sword as to …………….

(A)   Enemy

(B)   Fight

(C)   Seize

(D)   Battle
Answer Key
93.   Which among the following statement is wrong?

(A)   32 is the smallest 4th power.

(B)   132 is the smallest number which is the sum of all the two digit numbers that can be formed with its digits.

(C)   50 is the smallest number that can be written as the sum of two square numbers.

(D)   25 is the smallest square number that can be written as the sum of two square numbers.
Answer Key
94.   Among the following four statements identify the one which is incorrect:

(A)   780 = (7+5)(8+5)(0+5)

(B)   4772 = (4+4)(7+4)(5+4)(2+4)

(C)   1500 = (1+5)(5+5)(0+5)(0+5)

(D)   4340 = (4+6)(3+6)(2+6)(0+6)
Answer Key
95.   The largest four digit number which is a perfect square of a whole number is:

(A)   9801

(B)   9604

(C)   9216

(D)   9025
Answer Key
96.   A, B, C and D start from the same point to walk around in a circular  path, in the same direction, around a garden whose circumference is one kilometer. A walks 5 km an hour, B walks 4 km an hour, C walks 3 km an hour and D walks 2 km an hour. How long will it be before all four again meet at the starting point?

(A)   4 hours

(B)   3 hours

(C)   2 hours

(D)   1 hours
Answer Key
97.   How many numbers are there that  are completely divisible by 7 between 100 and 205?

(A)   15

(B)   13

(C)   14

(D)   12
Answer Key
98.   Complete the following series of words inserting proper word selecting from (A), (B), (C) or (D): THOUSAND, BILLION, OCTILLION, HUNDRED, ONE , ---------, EIGHT

(A)   TWO

(B)   FOUR


(D)   SIX
Answer Key
99.   Find the next two letters in the following series: A, C, F, J,……., ……..

(A)   O and U

(B)   M and P

(C)   L and S

(D)   N and S
Answer Key
100.            Seven of the following nine names are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which are the ones that do not belong to that group?

                                1. Albania                            2. Afganithan                     3. Algeria

                                4. angola                              5. Azerbijan                        6. Australia

                                7. Austria                             8. Argentina                       9. Antigua

(A)   3 and 7

(B)   4 and 6

(C)   2 and 5

(D)   1 and 6
Answer Key

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